r/AskHistorians • u/Commustar Swahili Coast | Sudanic States | Ethiopia • Mar 07 '16
Feature Monday Methods|Applying Modern Terminology to the Past
Thanks to /u/cordis_melum for suggesting this topic.
Periodically, AskHistorians will get a question like "Were the ancient Egyptians Black?" or "Did ancient greeks really have permissive attitudes about homosexuality?"
Often what follows are explanations and discussions about how "blackness" and racial theory are comparatively recent concepts, and ancient Egyptians would not understand these concepts in the way we do. Ditto, how the sexual orientation as a durable identity is a recent concept, and ancient Greeks would not understand the concept of "homosexuality" in the way we understand it.
With those examples in mind:
Are there cases where applying modern terms to historical societies can be useful/illustrative?
Or, does applying concepts (like racial theory, or homosexual identity, or modern medical diagnoses) anachronistically lead to presentism, giving the false impression that modern categorization is "normal"?
Can modern medical diagnoses be applied to the past? And can these diagnoses ever be certain?
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u/bitparity Post-Roman Transformation Mar 07 '16
"The state." Lets just accept that for the modern western word that it is, and not try to project it backward.
Also "Empire."